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4

What are the abnormalities that might accompany complete ureteral duplications?

A. reflux to the upper pole ureter, obstruction to the lower pole ureter

B. reflux to the lower pole ureter, obstruction to the upper pole ureter

C. left ureteropelvic junction obstruction, right ureterocele

D. right ureteropelvic junction obstruction, left ureterocele

Correct Answer :

B. reflux to the lower pole ureter, obstruction to the upper pole ureter


the anomalies are described in Weigert-Meyer law.

Related Questions

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4

What do urine tests examine to detect hematuria?

A. catalase activity of erythrocytes

B. peroxidase activity of erythrocytes

C. lyase activity of erythrocytes

D. none of the above

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4

What increases blood volume and pressure in corpora cavernosa during erection is:

A. increase in sympathetic discharge

B. contraction of ischiocavernosa and bulbocavernosa muscles

C. increase arterial flow and closure of emissary veins

D. shunting of blood from the dorsal to the central cavernosal artery

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4

At which condition is alpha-fetoprotein most frequently elevated?

A. infiltrating ductal carcinoma of the breast

B. seminoma

C. hepatocellular carcinoma

D. malignant melanoma

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4

To which region does pain, from the left mid ureter, refer to?

A. the loin region

B. the inguinal region

C. the umbilical region

D. the penis or clitoris

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4

What type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) does demonstrate aldosterone resistance?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

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4

In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of Wolffian ducts?

A. estradiol

B. DHT

C. FSH

D. testosterone

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4

What is the narrowest part of the ureter?

A. uretero-pelvic junction

B. uretero-vesical junction

C. where ureters cross the pelvic brim

D. where ureters cross the common iliac bifurcation

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4

Which class of the following diuretics could cause erectile dysfunction?

A. loop diuretics

B. thiazide diuretics

C. potassium sparing diuretics

D. osmotic diuretics

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4

Which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is more likely to form renal stones?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

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4

In which condition can NOT creatinine level be 1200 mg/dL?

A. an aspirate of pelvic urinoma

B. in untreated end-stage renal failure disease

C. a sample from a wound drain after pyeloplasty

D. a sample from suprapubic catheter

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4

The manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia include:

A. hypotension and tachycardia

B. hypotension and bradycardia

C. hypertension and tachycardia

D. hypertension and bradycardia

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4

Which of the following is NOT a part of the urogenital diaphragm structures?

A. perineal membrane

B. deep transverse perineal muscle

C. urethral sphincter

D. Camper`s fascia

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4

Which statement concerning urine pH is false?

A. influenced by food and medications

B. renal stones form at the extremes of pH range

C. reliable only when measured by 24 hr. urine collection

D. ranges from 4 7

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4

What causes pure testicular feminization is:

A. over estrogen synthesis

B. defective end-organ androgen response

C. extra X chromosome (XXY)

D. failure of genital ridge regression

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4

Which group(s) of lymph nodes drain(s) the glans penis?

A. internal and external iliac

B. superficial inguinal

C. deep inguinal

D. superficial and deep inguinal

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4

What helps in treating Candida albicans cystitis is:

A. sodium bicarbonate

B. phyto soya

C. ascorbic acid

D. sol palmetto

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4

Which of the following process(es) is (are) reversible?

A. 5α-reductase enzyme reduces testosterone to DHT

B. aromatase enzyme reduces testosterone to estrogen

C. PSA molecule binds to α1-antichymotrypsin and α2-macroglobulin

D. none of the above

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4

Which of the following does asymptomatic hematuria workup include?

A. cystoscopy

B. CT urography

C. urine cytology

D. all of the above

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4

What could render red urine workup, false positive for hematuria?

A. dehydration

B. myoglobinuria

C. high doses of vitamin C

D. all of the above

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4

What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?

A. vancomycin

B. clindamycin

C. streptomycin

D. tobramycin

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4

The commonest neoplasms that metastasize to kidneys come from:

A. breasts

B. thyroids

C. lungs

D. liver

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4

Which agent is safe to kidneys?

A. amoxicillin

B. gentamycin

C. diclofenac

D. herb extract

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4

Which of the following conditions could result in white urine?

A. chyluria

B. bacteriuria

C. phosphaturia

D. all of the above

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4

The mature genitourinary system develops from all of the following embryonic sources, EXCEPT:

A. intermediate mesoderm

B. mesothelium of celomic cavity

C. endoderm of the urogenital sinus

D. somatic ectoderm

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4

In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of the prostate gland?

A. estradiol

B. DHT

C. FSH

D. testosterone

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4

What is the nature of the prostate-specific antigen?

A. protease

B. lyase

C. carboxylase

D. hydrolase

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4

Which organism is capable of proliferation in the urine and causing urethritis?

A. Ureaplasma urealyticum

B. Chlamydia trachomatis

C. E. coli

D. Neisseria gonorrhea

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4

Which of the following conditions could happen in chronic pancreatitis and malabsorption syndrome with steatorrhea?

A. hyperoxaluria

B. hypercalciuria

C. hyperuricosuria

D. hyperphosphateuria

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4

Serum testosterone should be measured:

A. at mid-day

B. at the hour of sleep

C. in the morning

D. late afternoon

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4

Which innervations mediate detumescence?

A. cavernous nerves

B. dorsal nerves of the penis

C. sympathetic nervous system

D. parasympathetic nervous system