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4

In which condition can NOT creatinine level be 1200 mg/dL?

A. an aspirate of pelvic urinoma

B. in untreated end-stage renal failure disease

C. a sample from a wound drain after pyeloplasty

D. a sample from suprapubic catheter

Correct Answer :

B. in untreated end-stage renal failure disease


serum creatinine under no circumstances could be as high as 1200 mg/dL. In all other choices, creatinine levels represent urine values.

Related Questions

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4

What is the number of bacteria per high-power field microscopy that matches colony counts of 100,000/mL?

A. 100

B. 50

C. 10

D. 5

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4

What is the best method to evaluate calcium levels in the urine?

A. from early morning urine sample

B. comparing urine and serum calcium at a given time

C. performing 24 urine collection

D. from a mid-stream urine sample

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4

What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?

A. vancomycin

B. clindamycin

C. streptomycin

D. tobramycin

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4

How many days does spermatogenesis take in the man?

A. 16

B. 32

C. 64

D. 90

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4

What is true regarding hematospermia?

A. should be investigated thoroughly like hematuria

B. is rarely associated with significant urologic pathology

C. carries a risk of infertility

D. mandates testicular biopsy

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4

What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?

A. ureteral atresia

B. vesicoureteral reflux

C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction

D. ureteral duplication

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4

Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:

A. sympathetic nervous system

B. parasympathetic nervous system

C. urinary output

D. afferent arteriolar resistance

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4

Which artery(ies) supply(ies) the prostate?

A. middle rectal

B. inferior vesical

C. a & b

D. none of the above

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4

Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?

A. ejaculatory ducts

B. prostatic urethra

C. membranous urethra

D. bulbous urethra

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4

The commonest neoplasms that metastasize to kidneys come from:

A. breasts

B. thyroids

C. lungs

D. liver

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4

What nerve provides the major neural supply to the striated urinary sphincter and levator ani muscle?

A. somatic innervations

B. sympathetic fibers from T11 - L2

C. the pudendal nerve

D. the obturator nerve

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4

What do urine tests examine to detect hematuria?

A. catalase activity of erythrocytes

B. peroxidase activity of erythrocytes

C. lyase activity of erythrocytes

D. none of the above

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4

Which medicine(s) might enhance hypoprothrombinemic effect on oral anticoagulants?

A. allopurinol

B. aminoglycosides

C. cimetidine

D. all of the above

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4

The majority of circulating testosterone is:

A. bound to sex hormone-binding globulin

B. free

C. bound to α1-antichymotrypsin

D. bound to albumin

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4

Which of the following process(es) is (are) reversible?

A. 5α-reductase enzyme reduces testosterone to DHT

B. aromatase enzyme reduces testosterone to estrogen

C. PSA molecule binds to α1-antichymotrypsin and α2-macroglobulin

D. none of the above

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4

All of the following conditions are related to obesity syndrome, EXCEPT:

A. super fertility

B. increase aromatization reaction

C. increase resistance to circulating insulin

D. sleep apnea

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4

How does estrogen prevent lower UTI in postmenopausal women?

A. increasing vaginal secretions

B. decreasing vaginal pH

C. increasing normal vaginal flora

D. decreasing bacterial adherence

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4

Where is the centre of reflex erection located at?

A. the brain cortex

B. the sacral cord

C. the lumbar cord

D. the hypothalamus

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4

What is the appropriate intravenous maintenance fluid for a 16 kg girl?

A. 43 ml/hr of normal saline

B. 78 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline

C. 69 ml/hr of ½ normal saline

D. 54 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline

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4

What is false about purple urine bag syndrome?

A. occurs due to the interaction between the chemical components of the urine and polyvinyl chloride material in the urine bag

B. it is commonly symptomless

C. more common in female nursing home residents

D. commonly implicated bacteria are K. pneumoniae, P. mirabilis, E. coli

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4

Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypocitraturia?

A. high protein diet

B. hypokalaemia

C. proximal renal tubular acidosis

D. idiopathic

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4

Which statement regarding post-obstructive diuresis (POD) is false?

A. urine production exceeding 200 ml/hr for 2 consecutive hours or producing greater than 3 L of urine in 24 hours is diagnostic of POD

B. pathologic POD can be exacerbated by excessive fluid replacement

C. the replacement fluid choice is ringer lactate

D. fluid resuscitation depends on the degree of dehydration

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4

Which of the following carries the greatest risk of HIV transmission to health care workers?

A. splash of patient`s blood to the eyes

B. splash of patient`s blood to the mouth

C. surgical suture needle stick

D. hollow bore needle stick

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4

Which of the following is NOT a sex accessory tissue?

A. the prostate gland

B. seminal vesicles

C. epididymi

D. bulbourethral glands

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4

Adult size of bladder capacity is achieved at what age?

A. 5 6 yrs.

B. 7 8 yrs.

C. 9 10 yrs.

D. 11 12 yrs.

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4

What degrades semenogelin and determines the consistency of the seminal coagulum is:

A. spermine

B. acid phosphatase

C. PSA

D. semenoglobulin

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4

What do the specialized cells, at the juxtaglomerular apparatus, produce?

A. erythropoietin

B. renin

C. angiotensin I

D. angiotensinogen

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4

Which structure is a part of the renal hilum?

A. renal pelvis

B. branches of the renal artery

C. tributaries of renal vein

D. all of the above

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4

Which organism is capable of proliferation in the urine and causing urethritis?

A. Ureaplasma urealyticum

B. Chlamydia trachomatis

C. E. coli

D. Neisseria gonorrhea

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4

In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of the prostate gland?

A. estradiol

B. DHT

C. FSH

D. testosterone