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4

Which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is more likely to form renal stones?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

Correct Answer :

A. type 1


type 1 is characterized by calcium deposition due to Inability to excrete acid into the urine.

Related Questions

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4

What nerve provides the major neural supply to the striated urinary sphincter and levator ani muscle?

A. somatic innervations

B. sympathetic fibers from T11 - L2

C. the pudendal nerve

D. the obturator nerve

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4

What is the best method to evaluate calcium levels in the urine?

A. from early morning urine sample

B. comparing urine and serum calcium at a given time

C. performing 24 urine collection

D. from a mid-stream urine sample

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4

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of hydrochlorothiazide?

A. hypercholesterolemia

B. hyperuricemia

C. hypoglycemia

D. hypercalcemia

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4

What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?

A. ureteral atresia

B. vesicoureteral reflux

C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction

D. ureteral duplication

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4

What is false concerning coagulase splitting bacteria (Griess) test?

A. it is a reduction reaction that converts nitrate to nitrite

B. nitrazine reagent papers are used to elicit the reaction

C. it is false negative in diluted urine, on taking vitamin C, and in gram +ve bacteria

D. the reaction takes 4 minutes to complete

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4

At which week of gestation do the primordial germ cells migrate to form the genital ridges?

A. third

B. fourth

C. fifth

D. seventh

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4

Which zone of the prostate originates from the Wolffian duct tissue:

A. central zone

B. peripheral zone

C. transitional zone

D. periurethral glands

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4

Which lab results indicate poor prognosis of male infertility?

A. azoospermia; normal FSH; increase LH

B. azoospermia; decrease FSH; normal LH

C. oligospermia; increase FSH; normal LH

D. oligospermia; normal FSH; decrease LH

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4

What do urine tests examine to detect hematuria?

A. catalase activity of erythrocytes

B. peroxidase activity of erythrocytes

C. lyase activity of erythrocytes

D. none of the above

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4

The mature genitourinary system develops from all of the following embryonic sources, EXCEPT:

A. intermediate mesoderm

B. mesothelium of celomic cavity

C. endoderm of the urogenital sinus

D. somatic ectoderm

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4

What causes pure testicular feminization is:

A. over estrogen synthesis

B. defective end-organ androgen response

C. extra X chromosome (XXY)

D. failure of genital ridge regression

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4

How can hyperuricosuria cause calcium oxalate calculi?

A. by increasing oxalate absorption

B. by heterogeneous nucleation

C. by inducing hyperoxaluria

D. by reducing urate crystals saturation

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4

Which artery is NOT a branch of the anterior division of internal iliac artery?

A. superior vesical artery

B. inferior vesical artery

C. superior gluteal artery

D. inferior gluteal artery

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4

What is the most significant innervation of the vas deferens?

A. sympathetic nervous system

B. parasympathetic nervous system

C. somatic nervous system

D. none of the above

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4

What class of antibiotics might cause vestibular and/or auditory impairment?

A. aminoglycosides

B. αantipseudomonal penicillins

C. cephalosporins

D. fluoroquinolones

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4

The majority of circulating testosterone is:

A. bound to sex hormone-binding globulin

B. free

C. bound to α1-antichymotrypsin

D. bound to albumin

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4

Which of the following hormones, primarily, controls spermatogenesis?

A. GnRH

B. testosterone

C. LH

D. FSH

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4

Beside renal excretion of sodium, what does atrial natriuretic hormone cause?

A. constriction of renal afferent arterioles

B. renin inhibition

C. aldosterone stimulation

D. rise in systemic blood pressure

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4

Which organism is capable of proliferation in the urine and causing urethritis?

A. Ureaplasma urealyticum

B. Chlamydia trachomatis

C. E. coli

D. Neisseria gonorrhea

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4

Which period of intrauterine life does the process of organ formation (organogenesis) take place?

A. 9 12 weeks

B. 12 15 weeks

C. 15 18 weeks

D. 18 21 weeks

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4

Which statement regarding post-obstructive diuresis (POD) is false?

A. urine production exceeding 200 ml/hr for 2 consecutive hours or producing greater than 3 L of urine in 24 hours is diagnostic of POD

B. pathologic POD can be exacerbated by excessive fluid replacement

C. the replacement fluid choice is ringer lactate

D. fluid resuscitation depends on the degree of dehydration

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4

Which of the following carries the greatest risk of HIV transmission to health care workers?

A. splash of patient`s blood to the eyes

B. splash of patient`s blood to the mouth

C. surgical suture needle stick

D. hollow bore needle stick

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4

All of the following develop from the mesonephric ducts, EXCEPT:

A. vas deferens

B. seminal vesicles

C. appendix epididymis

D. appendix testis

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4

The commonest neoplasms that metastasize to kidneys come from:

A. breasts

B. thyroids

C. lungs

D. liver

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4

Which of the following is NOT a part of the urogenital diaphragm structures?

A. perineal membrane

B. deep transverse perineal muscle

C. urethral sphincter

D. Camper`s fascia

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4

What are the first and second most common zones from where prostate cancers arise?

A. central then transitional

B. peripheral then transitional

C. peripheral then central

D. transitional then central

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4

In which condition can NOT creatinine level be 1200 mg/dL?

A. an aspirate of pelvic urinoma

B. in untreated end-stage renal failure disease

C. a sample from a wound drain after pyeloplasty

D. a sample from suprapubic catheter

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4

Which anomaly might accompany horseshoe kidneys?

A. ureteropelvic junction obstruction

B. ureterocele

C. ureteral reflux

D. ureteral atresia

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4

Serum testosterone should be measured:

A. at mid-day

B. at the hour of sleep

C. in the morning

D. late afternoon

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4

Which of the following does NOT increase in prostate cancer?

A. human kallikrein 2

B. pro-PSA

C. free PSA

D. complexed PSA