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4

All of the following conditions are related to obesity syndrome, EXCEPT:

A. super fertility

B. increase aromatization reaction

C. increase resistance to circulating insulin

D. sleep apnea

Correct Answer :

A. super fertility


obesity syndrome is a recognized cause of infertility.

Related Questions

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4

In which body tissue(s) are creatine and phosphocreatine converted to creatinine?

A. bone marrow

B. skeletal muscles

C. brown fat

D. liver

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4

What is the nature of the prostate-specific antigen?

A. protease

B. lyase

C. carboxylase

D. hydrolase

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4

Which of the following is false regarding zona glomeruloza?

A. the most superficial layer of the adrenal cortex

B. responses to increased potassium levels, renin or decreased renal blood flow

C. it causes pheochromocytoma

D. secretes aldosterone

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4

Which statement is false concerning the epididymis?

A. each epididymis can be palpable at the postero-lateral surface of the testis

B. has 3 parts; head, body, and tail

C. new batches of sperms stay in the epididymis around 2 days for maturation

D. shares the same blood supply of the testis

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4

Which antibiotic is the best to treat soft tissue infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in hospitalized patients?

A. vancomycin

B. cefotaxime

C. penicillin G

D. tobramycin

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4

Which microbe causes red diaper syndrome?

A. Serratia marcescens

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

C. Clostridium difficile

D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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4

What is the earliest clinical sign of puberty in boys?

A. hoarseness of voice

B. enlargement of testes

C. appearance of axillary hair

D. change in body odor

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4

Which statement is false concerning the gubernaculua?

A. degenerate after birth

B. called the caudal genital ligaments

C. help guide the testes down through the inguinal canals

D. represent undifferentiated mesenchyme

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4

Which of the following carries the greatest risk of HIV transmission to health care workers?

A. splash of patient`s blood to the eyes

B. splash of patient`s blood to the mouth

C. surgical suture needle stick

D. hollow bore needle stick

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4

How many renal papillae are there in a typical kidney?

A. 4 to 6

B. 7 to 9

C. 10 to 12

D. 13 to 14

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4

Which of the following is NOT a part of the urogenital diaphragm structures?

A. perineal membrane

B. deep transverse perineal muscle

C. urethral sphincter

D. Camper`s fascia

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4

The commonest neoplasms that metastasize to kidneys come from:

A. breasts

B. thyroids

C. lungs

D. liver

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4

What vessels are located in the prostate neurovascular bundle?

A. Watson plexus

B. capsular arteries and veins

C. inferior vesical and midrectal vessels

D. Santorini plexus

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4

What do urine tests examine to detect hematuria?

A. catalase activity of erythrocytes

B. peroxidase activity of erythrocytes

C. lyase activity of erythrocytes

D. none of the above

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4

What nerve provides the major neural supply to the striated urinary sphincter and levator ani muscle?

A. somatic innervations

B. sympathetic fibers from T11 - L2

C. the pudendal nerve

D. the obturator nerve

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4

What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?

A. ureteral atresia

B. vesicoureteral reflux

C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction

D. ureteral duplication

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4

What is true regarding hematospermia?

A. should be investigated thoroughly like hematuria

B. is rarely associated with significant urologic pathology

C. carries a risk of infertility

D. mandates testicular biopsy

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4

Which of the following is false regarding Addison`s disease?

A. autoimmune disease in 70% of the cases

B. diagnosed by the rapid ACTH stimulation test

C. characterized by low serum sodium and high potassium

D. may coexist with hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus

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4

Which type of urinary casts are solidified TammHorsfall mucoproteins secreted from the tubular epithelial cells of individual nephrons?

A. granular

B. hyaline

C. waxy

D. pigment

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4

Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?

A. ejaculatory ducts

B. prostatic urethra

C. membranous urethra

D. bulbous urethra

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4

What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?

A. vancomycin

B. clindamycin

C. streptomycin

D. tobramycin

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4

Which statement is false concerning microhematuria?

A. malignancy is identified in patients presenting with microhematuria more than in patients presenting with gross hematuria

B. microscopic hematuria is defined as > 3 red blood cells per high powered field (RBC/hpf) on a single specimen

C. warrants full hematuria workup

D. history of cigarette smoking is of significance

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4

Which organism is capable of proliferation in the urine and causing urethritis?

A. Ureaplasma urealyticum

B. Chlamydia trachomatis

C. E. coli

D. Neisseria gonorrhea

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4

What type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) does demonstrate aldosterone resistance?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

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4

What is false concerning PSA molecule?

A. the free form of PSA exists in small proportions in the body, and found mainly in BPH and in the ejaculate

B. α1- anti chymotrypsin binds to 3 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA

C. α2- macroglobulin binds to 5 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA

D. the purified PSA molecule has a molecular weight of 90 kDa

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4

What could render red urine workup, false positive for hematuria?

A. dehydration

B. myoglobinuria

C. high doses of vitamin C

D. all of the above

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4

Which of the following conditions could happen in chronic pancreatitis and malabsorption syndrome with steatorrhea?

A. hyperoxaluria

B. hypercalciuria

C. hyperuricosuria

D. hyperphosphateuria

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4

Which of the following is NOT a sex accessory tissue?

A. the prostate gland

B. seminal vesicles

C. epididymi

D. bulbourethral glands

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4

Which of the following does NOT increase PSA value?

A. trauma to the prostate

B. digital rectal examination

C. urinary retention

D. prostatitis

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4

What is false concerning fosfomycin antibiotic?

A. has a limited cross-resistance with most common antibacterial agents

B. causes injection site reactions

C. is active against most uropathogens

D. is effective as a single-dose agent