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What is the correct answer?

4

What is true regarding hematospermia?

A. should be investigated thoroughly like hematuria

B. is rarely associated with significant urologic pathology

C. carries a risk of infertility

D. mandates testicular biopsy

Correct Answer :

B. is rarely associated with significant urologic pathology


hematospermia almost always resolves spontaneously and of little significance.

Related Questions

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4

What is the best method to evaluate calcium levels in the urine?

A. from early morning urine sample

B. comparing urine and serum calcium at a given time

C. performing 24 urine collection

D. from a mid-stream urine sample

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4

Which of the following is (are) direct branch(es) of the abdominal aorta?

A. median sacral artery

B. inferior phrenic arteries

C. gonadal arteries

D. all of the above

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4

What is true regarding hematospermia?

A. should be investigated thoroughly like hematuria

B. is rarely associated with significant urologic pathology

C. carries a risk of infertility

D. mandates testicular biopsy

What is the correct answer?

4

Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:

A. sympathetic nervous system

B. parasympathetic nervous system

C. urinary output

D. afferent arteriolar resistance

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4

What is the earliest clinical sign of puberty in boys?

A. hoarseness of voice

B. enlargement of testes

C. appearance of axillary hair

D. change in body odor

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4

How can hyperuricosuria cause calcium oxalate calculi?

A. by increasing oxalate absorption

B. by heterogeneous nucleation

C. by inducing hyperoxaluria

D. by reducing urate crystals saturation

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4

Which of the following does NOT affect serum creatinine?

A. gender

B. age

C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter

D. rhabdomyolysis

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4

In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of the prostate gland?

A. estradiol

B. DHT

C. FSH

D. testosterone

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4

What causes Cushing`s disease is:

A. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

B. pituitary over secretion of ACTH

C. exogenous administration of glucocorticoids

D. immune-mediated disease

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4

Which of the following does NOT increase in prostate cancer?

A. human kallikrein 2

B. pro-PSA

C. free PSA

D. complexed PSA

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4

Which artery(ies) supply(ies) the prostate?

A. middle rectal

B. inferior vesical

C. a & b

D. none of the above

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4

What causes pure testicular feminization is:

A. over estrogen synthesis

B. defective end-organ androgen response

C. extra X chromosome (XXY)

D. failure of genital ridge regression

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4

Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?

A. ejaculatory ducts

B. prostatic urethra

C. membranous urethra

D. bulbous urethra

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4

What is false concerning fosfomycin antibiotic?

A. has a limited cross-resistance with most common antibacterial agents

B. causes injection site reactions

C. is active against most uropathogens

D. is effective as a single-dose agent

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4

What nerve provides the major neural supply to the striated urinary sphincter and levator ani muscle?

A. somatic innervations

B. sympathetic fibers from T11 - L2

C. the pudendal nerve

D. the obturator nerve

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4

What causes ureteral dilation during pregnancy is:

A. mechanical compression by the gravid uterus

B. physiological increase urine flow during pregnancy

C. elevated levels of progesterone

D. reflex inhibition of ureteral contractions

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4

What is the most significant innervation of the vas deferens?

A. sympathetic nervous system

B. parasympathetic nervous system

C. somatic nervous system

D. none of the above

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4

What is the nerve supply of the adrenal gland?

A. sympathetic to the medulla

B. parasympathetic to the medulla

C. sympathetic to the cortex

D. parasympathetic to the cortex

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4

Which microbe causes red diaper syndrome?

A. Serratia marcescens

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

C. Clostridium difficile

D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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4

Bacterial resistance to antibiotics may occur because of:

A. inherited chromosomal-mediated resistance

B. acquired chromosomal-mediated resistance

C. extrachromosomal-mediated resistance

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning PSA molecule?

A. the free form of PSA exists in small proportions in the body, and found mainly in BPH and in the ejaculate

B. α1- anti chymotrypsin binds to 3 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA

C. α2- macroglobulin binds to 5 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA

D. the purified PSA molecule has a molecular weight of 90 kDa

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4

What is the function of PSA in semen?

A. increases semen volume

B. has antimicrobial activity

C. liquefies the seminal coagulum

D. decreases semen pH

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4

Which zone of the prostate originates from the Wolffian duct tissue:

A. central zone

B. peripheral zone

C. transitional zone

D. periurethral glands

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4

Regarding multicystic kidneys, at what age does the compensatory renal growth end?

A. at birth

B. 2 years

C. at puberty

D. none of the above

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4

What does apoptosis mean?

A. programmed cell death

B. new vascular formation

C. uninhibited neural stimulation

D. premature muscular contraction

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4

What is the most likely diagnosis of an erectile dysfunction patient with low plasma testosterone and high prolactin levels?

A. pituitary adenoma

B. adrenal adenoma

C. Kallmann syndrome

D. Klinefelter syndrome

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4

Which of the following does NOT increase PSA value?

A. trauma to the prostate

B. digital rectal examination

C. urinary retention

D. prostatitis

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4

Which α- adrenergic receptor subtype mediates smooth muscle contraction of the prostate?

A. α1-A

B. α2-A

C. α1-B

D. α2-B

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4

The epithelial component of the prostate consists of all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. basal cells

B. intermediate cells

C. tubulo-columnar cells

D. neuroendocrine cells

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4

What is false concerning the collecting system structures of a typical kidney?

A. the renal pelvis could be intra or extra renal

B. the renal pelvis divides into 2 or 3 major calyces

C. major calyces divide into 2 or 3 minor calyces

D. unlike lateral calyces, polar calyces are often paired