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4

During fluoroscopy, what is the main source of radiation hazards that urologists could be exposed to?

A. scattered radiation from the unleaded wall

B. scattered radiation from the patient

C. scattered radiation from the floor and ceiling

D. radiation from the primary beam

Correct Answer :

B. scattered radiation from the patient


self-explanatory.

Related Questions

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4

What is the most common cause of hematuria in men over 60 yrs.?

A. kidney stones

B. glomerulonephritis

C. BPH

D. bladder cancer

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4

Which structure is a part of the renal hilum?

A. renal pelvis

B. branches of the renal artery

C. tributaries of renal vein

D. all of the above

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4

In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of the prostate gland?

A. estradiol

B. DHT

C. FSH

D. testosterone

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4

What causes pink diaper syndrome is (are):

A. Staphylococcus epidermidis in the urine

B. dried urate crystals on the diaper

C. Adenovirus 11 in the urine

D. Candidiasis in the urine

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4

What is the appropriate intravenous maintenance fluid for a 16 kg girl?

A. 43 ml/hr of normal saline

B. 78 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline

C. 69 ml/hr of ½ normal saline

D. 54 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline

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4

Which part of the male urethra is the narrowest?

A. the membranous

B. the bladder neck

C. the bulbous

D. the external urethral meatus

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4

What is the most likely diagnosis of an erectile dysfunction patient with low plasma testosterone and high prolactin levels?

A. pituitary adenoma

B. adrenal adenoma

C. Kallmann syndrome

D. Klinefelter syndrome

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4

What degrades semenogelin and determines the consistency of the seminal coagulum is:

A. spermine

B. acid phosphatase

C. PSA

D. semenoglobulin

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4

At which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA), typically, potassium levels increase?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

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4

What are the abnormalities that might accompany complete ureteral duplications?

A. reflux to the upper pole ureter, obstruction to the lower pole ureter

B. reflux to the lower pole ureter, obstruction to the upper pole ureter

C. left ureteropelvic junction obstruction, right ureterocele

D. right ureteropelvic junction obstruction, left ureterocele

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4

Which drug does NOT result in urinary retention?

A. terazosin, antihypertensive

B. benzodiazepines, psychotropic medicine

C. levodopa, anti-Parkinsonism medicine

D. brimonidine, glaucoma eye drops

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4

Which statement regarding post-obstructive diuresis (POD) is false?

A. urine production exceeding 200 ml/hr for 2 consecutive hours or producing greater than 3 L of urine in 24 hours is diagnostic of POD

B. pathologic POD can be exacerbated by excessive fluid replacement

C. the replacement fluid choice is ringer lactate

D. fluid resuscitation depends on the degree of dehydration

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4

Which of the following is false regarding Addison`s disease?

A. autoimmune disease in 70% of the cases

B. diagnosed by the rapid ACTH stimulation test

C. characterized by low serum sodium and high potassium

D. may coexist with hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus

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4

Which antibiotic is the best to treat soft tissue infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in hospitalized patients?

A. vancomycin

B. cefotaxime

C. penicillin G

D. tobramycin

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4

Which of the following does asymptomatic hematuria workup include?

A. cystoscopy

B. CT urography

C. urine cytology

D. all of the above

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4

Which statement is false concerning the dipstick method for detecting hematuria?

A. depends on the ability of hemoglobin to oxidize a chromogen indicator

B. negative results need to be confirmed by microscopic examination

C. has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 75%

D. the presence of many epithelial cells suggests skin or vaginal contamination

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4

What causes pure testicular feminization is:

A. over estrogen synthesis

B. defective end-organ androgen response

C. extra X chromosome (XXY)

D. failure of genital ridge regression

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4

How many renal papillae are there in a typical kidney?

A. 4 to 6

B. 7 to 9

C. 10 to 12

D. 13 to 14

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4

Which area in the nervous system is tested by bulbocavernosus reflex?

A. brain stem

B. C2 C4

C. S2 - S4

D. L2 - L4

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4

Which agent is safe to kidneys?

A. amoxicillin

B. gentamycin

C. diclofenac

D. herb extract

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4

Which agent is most likely to cause hemorrhagic cystitis?

A. cisplatin

B. ifosfamide

C. phosphomycin

D. amphotericin B

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4

Which of the following mediates calcium reabsorption in the distal renal tubules?

A. aldosterone

B. hypocalcemia

C. parathyroid hormone

D. vitamin D

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4

Which of the following does NOT affect serum creatinine?

A. gender

B. age

C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter

D. rhabdomyolysis

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4

Which class of the following diuretics could cause erectile dysfunction?

A. loop diuretics

B. thiazide diuretics

C. potassium sparing diuretics

D. osmotic diuretics

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4

Which of the following process(es) is (are) reversible?

A. 5α-reductase enzyme reduces testosterone to DHT

B. aromatase enzyme reduces testosterone to estrogen

C. PSA molecule binds to α1-antichymotrypsin and α2-macroglobulin

D. none of the above

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4

What is the function of PSA in semen?

A. increases semen volume

B. has antimicrobial activity

C. liquefies the seminal coagulum

D. decreases semen pH

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4

When should a 70 yrs. man with 40 ml prostate volume, and total PSA of 2.0 ng/ml, go for a prostate biopsy?

A. if PSA reading had exceeded 2.7 ng/ml over 12 months

B. if free PSA reading was less than 0.4 ng/ml

C. if total PSA reading was greater than 8 ng/ml

D. any of the above

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4

What is the number of bacteria per high-power field microscopy that matches colony counts of 100,000/mL?

A. 100

B. 50

C. 10

D. 5

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4

Which statement concerning urine pH is false?

A. influenced by food and medications

B. renal stones form at the extremes of pH range

C. reliable only when measured by 24 hr. urine collection

D. ranges from 4 7

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4

What is false concerning the collecting system structures of a typical kidney?

A. the renal pelvis could be intra or extra renal

B. the renal pelvis divides into 2 or 3 major calyces

C. major calyces divide into 2 or 3 minor calyces

D. unlike lateral calyces, polar calyces are often paired