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4

On tracing the IVU dye down, in a dilated ureter, the dilation stops at a level then continues as a normal calibre ureter. What could the pathology be?

A. lower ureteral stricture

B. ureteral valve

C. modified Lich-Gregoire ureteral reimplantation

D. residual dilation of hydroureter

Correct Answer :

B. ureteral valve


ureteral valve is a rare condition manifests as described above.

Related Questions

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4

Beside renal excretion of sodium, what does atrial natriuretic hormone cause?

A. constriction of renal afferent arterioles

B. renin inhibition

C. aldosterone stimulation

D. rise in systemic blood pressure

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4

What is the number of bacteria per high-power field microscopy that matches colony counts of 100,000/mL?

A. 100

B. 50

C. 10

D. 5

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4

The mature genitourinary system develops from all of the following embryonic sources, EXCEPT:

A. intermediate mesoderm

B. mesothelium of celomic cavity

C. endoderm of the urogenital sinus

D. somatic ectoderm

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4

Which of the following does NOT increase in prostate cancer?

A. human kallikrein 2

B. pro-PSA

C. free PSA

D. complexed PSA

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4

What causes Cushing`s disease is:

A. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

B. pituitary over secretion of ACTH

C. exogenous administration of glucocorticoids

D. immune-mediated disease

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4

How many renal papillae are there in a typical kidney?

A. 4 to 6

B. 7 to 9

C. 10 to 12

D. 13 to 14

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4

Which statement concerning urine pH is false?

A. influenced by food and medications

B. renal stones form at the extremes of pH range

C. reliable only when measured by 24 hr. urine collection

D. ranges from 4 7

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4

Which statement is false concerning capacitation of spermatozoa?

A. occurs after acrosome reaction

B. entails removal of a glycoprotein layer

C. it is a biochemical event of sperm maturation

D. changes occur in the female genital tract

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4

Which agent should be avoided during living-related donor nephrectomy?

A. ice slush

B. heparin

C. norepinephrine

D. methylene blue

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4

Which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is more likely to form renal stones?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

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4

What is the nature of the prostate-specific antigen?

A. protease

B. lyase

C. carboxylase

D. hydrolase

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4

What are the first and second most common zones from where prostate cancers arise?

A. central then transitional

B. peripheral then transitional

C. peripheral then central

D. transitional then central

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4

What does make UTI more common in mid-aged females than in males?

A. short female urethra

B. pregnancy

C. vaginal colonization with enterobacteria

D. all the above

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4

Where is the gene sex-determining region (SRY) located at?

A. long arm of X chromosome

B. long arm of Y chromosome

C. short arm of Y chromosome

D. short arm of X chromosome

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4

What is false about indinavir sulfate stones?

A. intratubular crystal formation might occur

B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi

C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication

D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion

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4

Which of the renal artery occlusive conditions, commonly, do NOT affect renal function?

A. intimal fibroplasia

B. medial fibroplasia

C. medial hyperplasia

D. serosal hyperplasia

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4

Bacterial resistance to antibiotics may occur because of:

A. inherited chromosomal-mediated resistance

B. acquired chromosomal-mediated resistance

C. extrachromosomal-mediated resistance

D. all of the above

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4

Which of the following contributes second to the seminal fluid by volume?

A. seminal vesicles

B. the prostate

C. testes

D. bulbourethral glands

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4

Which of the following diabetes mellitus treatments causes erectile dysfunction?

A. long-acting insulin

B. metformin

C. sulfonylurea

D. none of the above

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4

Which part of the male urethra is the narrowest?

A. the membranous

B. the bladder neck

C. the bulbous

D. the external urethral meatus

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4

In which condition can NOT creatinine level be 1200 mg/dL?

A. an aspirate of pelvic urinoma

B. in untreated end-stage renal failure disease

C. a sample from a wound drain after pyeloplasty

D. a sample from suprapubic catheter

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4

At what month of intra-uterine life do testes descend into the scrotum with the aid of the intra-abdominal pressure and the gubernacula?

A. sixth

B. seventh

C. eighth

D. ninth

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4

Which zone of the prostate originates from the Wolffian duct tissue:

A. central zone

B. peripheral zone

C. transitional zone

D. periurethral glands

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4

At which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA), typically, potassium levels increase?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

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4

Which of the following does asymptomatic hematuria workup include?

A. cystoscopy

B. CT urography

C. urine cytology

D. all of the above

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4

Which class of the following agents does NOT impair spermatogenesis?

A. alkylating agents

B. phenothiazines

C. antiandrogens

D. prostaglandins

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4

What is the most likely cause of large scrotal hematoma in neonates?

A. clotting factor VIII deficiency

B. clotting factor IX deficiency

C. breech delivery

D. scrotal cavernous haemangioma

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4

Which group(s) of lymph nodes drain(s) the glans penis?

A. internal and external iliac

B. superficial inguinal

C. deep inguinal

D. superficial and deep inguinal

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4

In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of Wolffian ducts?

A. estradiol

B. DHT

C. FSH

D. testosterone

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4

Which innervations mediate detumescence?

A. cavernous nerves

B. dorsal nerves of the penis

C. sympathetic nervous system

D. parasympathetic nervous system