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4

What medications do NOT cause renal stones?

A. ciprofloxacin

B. indinavir

C. thiazides

D. triamterene

Correct Answer :

C. thiazides


thiazides rather help treat hypercalciuria.

Related Questions

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4

What is the most favorable stone characteristics for laparoscopic and robotic approaches for the treatment of a kidney stone?

A. a stone in the lower calyx with a wide mouth of infundibulum and obtuse lower calyx to ureter angle

B. a stone in an anterior group calyceal diverticulum with thin overlying renal parenchyma

C. 5 mm calcium-containing stone in an intrarenal pelvis and wide UPJ

D. 6 years post anatrophic nephrolithotomy, recurrent mid calyceal stone

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4

What is the preferred irrigation fluid during PCNL?

A. physiological saline 0.9%

B. glycine 1.5%

C. balanced salt solution

D. distilled water

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4

What sequence of ureteral parts represents the most to least favorable stone response to ESWL treatment?

A. upper, lower, mid

B. lower, upper, mid

C. mid, upper, lower

D. mid, lower, upper

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4

What could carry the least risk of colon injury during PCNL?

A. subcostal puncture performed during full expiration

B. previous open nephrolithotomy

C. access lateral to the posterior axillary line

D. horseshoe kidney

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4

Worldwide, the commonest type of urinary stones is:

A. calcium monohydrate

B. calcium oxalate

C. ammonium urate

D. none of the above

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4

What type of stones do laxative abusers might develop?

A. ammonium urate

B. sodium urate

C. calcium oxalate

D. calcium phosphate

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4

What is the most appropriate antibiotic class for prophylaxis before urologic surgery?

A. aminoglycosides

B. macrolides

C. cephalosporins

D. fluoroquinolones

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4

What type of stones is soft, resilient, composed of mucoproteins of urine and serum?

A. matrix

B. indinavir

C. brushite

D. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine

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4

What is true regarding prostatic stones?

A. they are multiple and small in size

B. usually, they are voided spontaneously

C. they, rarely, form large stones within the peripheral zone

D. contrast CT is the conventional method for diagnosis

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4

What medications do NOT cause renal stones?

A. ciprofloxacin

B. indinavir

C. thiazides

D. triamterene

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the least serious complications of PCNL?

A. uncontrollable bleeding

B. incomplete removal of stones

C. pneumothorax

D. colonic perforation

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4

Why do patients with cystic fibrosis form stones?

A. because urine and body secretions are highly concentrated

B. due to renal leak hypercalciuria

C. as a result of distal renal tubular acidosis type I

D. because of reduced or absent of oxalobacter formigenes colonization

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4

What type of urinary diversion carries the highest risk of stone formation?

A. Kock pouch

B. Neobladder-to-urethra diversion

C. Florida pouch

D. Indiana pouch

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4

Which of the following factors, positively, affect lower calyceal stone clearance after ESWL?

A. short and wide infundibulum

B. large lower-pole infundibulo-pelvic angle

C. the adjunct usage of PCNL

D. all of the above

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4

What is the favorable stone characteristic for ESWL treatment?

A. 1000 - 1300 HU density

B. 5 - 10 mm diameter

C. lower calyx location

D. mid ureteral location

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4

What is true regarding a stone in a urethral diverticulum?

A. is symptomless

B. should undergo a trial of milking out

C. diverticulectomy and stone extraction is the treatment of choice

D. ESWL is the preferred treatment option

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4

What is the composition of brushite stones?

A. calcium phosphate

B. calcium oxalate monohydrate

C. sodium urate

D. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine

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4

For how long a completely obstructed ureter could be respited with no expected permanent damage to renal functions?

A. 2 days

B. 2 weeks

C. 2 months

D. 4 6 hrs.

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4

What is the most common organism that might complicate PCNL?

A. Proteus mirabilis

B. E. coli

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

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4

What is false regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be introduced from the bladder or kidney or any part of the ureter`s course

B. the standard adult size is 32 cm long, 4 mm calibre

C. might result in encrustations and ureteral obstruction

D. might result in ureteral dilation

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4

ESWL in pediatric patients is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. often need sedation or anesthesia

B. vesico-ureteral reflux must be excluded

C. pediatrics have a higher clearance rate of stones when compared to adults

D. safety measures must be taken to avoid lung contusions

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4

What are the expected findings on urinalysis in patients with acute renal colic?

A. blood cells more than pus cells

B. pus cells if infection was superadded

C. crystals might appear

D. all of the above

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4

What kind of stones is most amenable to ESWL?

A. cystine

B. brushite

C. Ca.oxalate monohydrate

D. Ca.oxalate dihydrate

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4

What could high dietary protein result in?

A. increase urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion

B. decrease urinary calcium; but increase oxalate, and uric acid excretion

C. increased urinary calcium and uric acid; but decrease oxalate excretion

D. decreased urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of using DJ ureteral catheters?

A. to stent the ureter after ureteral surgery

B. to facilitate stone passage

C. after a tough ureteroscopy procedure

D. all of the above

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4

How can the effectiveness of ESWL treatment session be enhanced?

A. by ensuring optimal coupling of the patient to the lithotripter

B. by running the treatment at a slower rate (60 shocks/min)

C. by running the treatment with general anesthesia

D. by all of the above

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4

Which patient is at lowest risk for the development of perinephric hematoma after ESWL?

A. hypertensive patient

B. patient on aspirin withheld 5 days prior to ESWL

C. a stone in a scared poorly functioning kidney

D. ESWL every other day

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4

What congenital anomaly is unlikely to result in stone formation?

A. left ureterocele

B. bifid right renal pelvis

C. neurogenic bladder

D. bilateral UPJ stenosis

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4

During pyelolithotomy for removing a staghorn urate stone; how to ensure a complete removal of calyceal branches?

A. by performing intra-operative ultrasonography

B. by performing radial nephrotomies

C. by performing adjunct PCLN

D. by taking a scout KUB film

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4

How is primary oxaluria treated?

A. terminal ilium resection

B. liver transplantation

C. kidney transplantation

D. regular hemodialysis