A. produces yellow whitish, scanty, frothy urethral discharge

B. shows gram (+), extracellular diplococcic

C. infection could be contracted from the spouses eyes

D. responds fairly to azithromycin

A. improperly drained hair follicle scrotal abscess

B. syphilitic orchitis

C. tuberculous epididymitis

D. all of the above

A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent

B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter

C. maintenance of a closed drainage system

D. maintaining a dependant drainage system

A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder

B. acute tubular necrosis

C. renal papillary necrosis

D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

A. could result from intra-renal abscess of ascending infection

B. urine culture might be negative

C. plain KUB X-ray has no value in the diagnosis

D. surgical drainage is the proper treatment

A. tuberculous ulcer

B. malignant ulcer

C. gummatous ulcers

D. traumatic ulcer

A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings

B. risk factors include transplant recipients

C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder

D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy

A. type I

B. type II

C. type III

D. type IV

A. 16

B. 18

C. 22

D. 12

A. inhibits bladder epithelial cell proliferation

B. inhibits the bladder proliferative growth factors

C. stimulates the proliferation inhibitory factors

D. none of the above

A. the onset of symptoms is insidious

B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer

C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications

D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis

A. commonly, TB enters the urinary tract via intravesical instillation of attenuated live BCG to treat bladder cancer

B. CT urography may show infundibular stricture with or without hydrocalicosis

C. renal ultrasonography reveals calyceal erosions moth-eaten calyx

D. TB of the vas appears, clinically, as a thin hard strictured tube

A. indwelling catheter insertion must be under sterile condition

B. systemic antibiotics help best in preventing bacteriuria

C. greater than 90% of nosocomial UTIs are related to urethral catheters

D. Intermittent catheterization carries the incidence of 1-3% of developing bacteriuria per insertion

A. giant staghorn stone

B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder

C. bacterial resistance

D. self-inflicted infection

A. AIDS patients in active infection show low CD4 + T-cell count

B. the diagnosis is confirmed by positive anti-HIV-1, anti-HIV-2 antibodies

C. patients receiving antiviral therapy could still be infectious

D. herpes simplex virus increases HIV replication in infected persons

A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux

B. paraphimosis

C. specific blood groups

D. unprotected anal intercourse

A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells

B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection

C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times

D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission

A. condom catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral

B. suprapubic catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral

C. latex catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to silicon

D. intermittent catheterization carry less risk of UTI if compared to indwelling catheters

A. multiple antiretroviral drugs can be combined into a single pill

B. might cause radiolucent renal stones

C. can lead to a significant rise in the serum level of PDE5 inhibitors, if taken simultaneously

D. have the advantage of structured treatment interruptions (drug holidays)

A. categorizes CP-CPPS, IC, and painful bladder syndrome based on 5 etiological principles

B. meant to classify CP-CPPS and IC patients into 6 domains

C. helps establish a reliable diagnosis of CP/CPPS or IC

D. the diagnostic scores of UPOINT depend on cystoscopy, TRUS, urine analysis and culture of uncommon microbes

A. produces yellow whitish, scanty, frothy urethral discharge

B. shows gram (+), extracellular diplococcic

C. infection could be contracted from the spouses eyes

D. responds fairly to azithromycin

A. kidneys

B. bladder

C. prostate

D. epididymis

A. beading of the lower ureteral segment

B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter

C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction

D. all of the above

A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection

B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages

C. the overall prognosis is poor

D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs

A. uncontrolled DM

B. sexual activity with multiple partners

C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence

D. all of the above

A. 1 2.7%

B. 5 9%

C. 10 27%

D. 30 47%

A. most commonly due to indwelling catheters

B. the areas of inflammation are usually confined to the lateral walls or the dome of the bladder

C. radiographic changes are nonspecific or present as bullous edema

D. indwelling catheters are associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

A. drug resistance

B. non-compliance

C. the presence of persistent pathology

D. all of the above

A. is best diagnosed by ascending urethrography

B. occurs mostly in diabetic and immunosuppressed patients

C. could be due to maceration injury, irritant dermatitis, or Candida

D. commonly presents with deep inguinal lymphadenopathy

A. elevated body temperature

B. dropped blood pressure

C. elevated heart rate

D. reduced urine output

A. inadequately treated UTI

B. renal papillary necrosis

C. acute emphysematous pyelonephritis

D. urinary tract tuberculosis