A. the size of the prostate correlates well to the degree of obstruction

B. a decrease of 3 points in IPSS is associated with a subjective perception of improvement

C. median lobe enlargement gives rise to serious obstructive symptoms

D. bladder trabeculation is not specific for an obstructing prostate

A. frequency, over-flow incontinence, straining, retention

B. straining, frequency, over-flow incontinence, retention

C. straining, frequency, retention, over-flow incontinence

D. frequency, straining, retention, over-flow incontinence

A. there is an increase in the number of epithelial and stromal cells

B. there is an increase in the size of epithelial and stromal cells

C. in BPH, epithelial to stromal cells ratio is 1:2

D. all of the above

A. TUIP

B. TURP

C. HoLEP

D. HoLRP

A. alfuzosin

B. silodosin

C. finasteride

D. tamsulosin

A. bladder stones

B. prostate cancer

C. renal insufficiency

D. bladder diverticula

A. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL

B. prostate volume > 40 ml

C. IPSS > 19

D. a & b

A. an additional 15 g in prostate weight

B. each centimeter over the normal 1.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

C. an additional 5 g in prostate weight

D. . When comparing suprapubic to retropubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former allows:

A. total and free PSA

B. renal ultrasonography

C. creatinine clearance

D. uroflowmetry

A. intra-prostatic levels of estrogen decrease in men with BPH

B. stimulation of the adrenergic nervous system results in a dynamic increase in prostatic urethral resistance

C. inflammation may play a role through cytokines to promote cell growth

D. hyperplasia occurs due to an imbalance between cell death and cell proliferation

A. corporal aspiration

B. corpora injection with an α-adrenergic agent

C. corpora injection with an α-adrenergic blocker

D. no treatment required

A. the aim is to occlude the internal iliac vessels

B. there is a considerable radiation risk during the procedure

C. bilateral embolization provides better results

D. eye protection is not required

A. calcium channel blockers

B. antihistamines

C. antidepressants

D. cold medications containing pseudoephedrine

A. hematuria and infections

B. migration and encrustation of the stent

C. irritative urinary symptoms and painful ejaculation

D. all of the above

A. complicates approximately 0.7% of cataract surgery cases

B. manifests as poor preoperative pupil dilation, iris prolapse, and progressive intraoperative miosis

C. it could persist long after the discontinuation of tamsulosin

D. intraoperative lidocaine reduces its incidence in patients taking α- adrenergic inhibitors

A. operation time

B. duration of in-hospital stay

C. amount of blood transfused

D. time to catheter removal

A. removing small bladder stones

B. better access to prostatic fossa

C. technically, easier trigonization

D. . When comparing retropubic to suprapubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former has the advantage of:

A. it helps predict the response to 5α-reductase inhibitors

B. it monitors LUTS/BPH progression

C. BPH patients are at higher risk of developing prostate cancer

D. a & b

A. smaller incisions with a shorter hospital stay

B. lower risk for blood transfusion

C. none of the above

D. . What is the first-line management of uncomplicated LUTS due to large prostate?

A. the glandular component of the prostate

B. the IPSS questionnaire points

C. the PVR

D. the transitional zone volume

A. PSA decreases

B. the prostate size decreases

C. the complaints resolve

D. the Q.O.L improves

A. obstruction results in bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy and myofibroblasts deposition

B. BPH occurs chiefly in the transitional zone and periurethral tissues

C. BPH microscopical changes begin in early thirties

D. histologic findings of chronic prostatitis are common in BPH

A. urolithiasis

B. receiving chemotherapy

C. upper tract surgery

D. painless hematuria

A. the presence of prostate cancer

B. previous prostatectomy

C. all of the above

D. . Robot-assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma has the following advantage over TURP:

A. 0.2 1%

B. 1.2 2.1%

C. 2.3 3.4%

D. 3.7 5.6%

A. is only indicated in small prostates

B. complications are related to the amount of lost blood and removed chips

C. is a minimal procedure where no risk of rectal injury or retrograde ejaculation have been reported

D. it entails making 1 or 2 incisions along all prostate lobes except the apical

A. IPSS cannot be used to establish the diagnosis of BPH/LUTS

B. prostate biopsy is essential in diagnosing BPH and excluding cancers

C. PSA and uroflowmetry help diagnose the condition

D. none of the above

A. symptoms begin with a serum sodium of less than 120 mEq/L

B. the mortality is 2.7-5.8 %

C. manifestations rely on acute changes in the intravascular volume and plasma solute concentrations

D. the preferred height of irrigating fluid is 60 cm above the patient

A. combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

B. watchful waiting

C. TURP

D. . What is the commonest cause of LUTS in men beyond middle age?

A. the most potent androgenic hormones in BPH development is DHT

B. type-2 steroid 5 α-reductase, is most commonly found in the prostate

C. castrated individuals before puberty will not develop BPH

D. as a man ages, the number of androgen receptors in the prostate decreases

A. BPH is an inheritable and progressive disease

B. familial BPH presents at an older age when compared to sporadic cases

C. approximately 90% of men in their 80s have histologic evidence of BPH

D. BPH tends to be more severe and progressive in black men when compared to whites