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4

Hematuria of glomerular origin is associated with:

A. significant proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, RBC casts

B. glycosuria, eumorphic RBCs, WBC casts

C. hypercalciuria, eumorphic RBCs, granular casts

D. proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, hyaline casts

Correct Answer :

A. significant proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, RBC casts


proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, RBC casts, HTN, renal insufficiency are characteristics of nephrogenic hematuria.

Related Questions

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4

Which statement is false concerning smegma?

A. it is the white secretion produced under the foreskin in males

B. it has a crucial role in penile cancer development

C. it contains lysozymes, chymotrypsin, neutrophil elastase and cytokines

D. female smegma can be found between the labia

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4

How many days does spermatogenesis take in the man?

A. 16

B. 32

C. 64

D. 90

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4

Which statement concerning urine pH is false?

A. influenced by food and medications

B. renal stones form at the extremes of pH range

C. reliable only when measured by 24 hr. urine collection

D. ranges from 4 7

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4

What is the appropriate intravenous maintenance fluid for a 16 kg girl?

A. 43 ml/hr of normal saline

B. 78 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline

C. 69 ml/hr of ½ normal saline

D. 54 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline

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4

Which statement regarding post-obstructive diuresis (POD) is false?

A. urine production exceeding 200 ml/hr for 2 consecutive hours or producing greater than 3 L of urine in 24 hours is diagnostic of POD

B. pathologic POD can be exacerbated by excessive fluid replacement

C. the replacement fluid choice is ringer lactate

D. fluid resuscitation depends on the degree of dehydration

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4

Between which 2 fascial planes does the prostatic neurovascular bundle travel?

A. prostatic fascia and levator fascia

B. prostate capsule and prostatic fascia

C. Denonvilliers fascia and prostate capsule

D. Denonvilliers fascia and endopelvic fascia

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4

Which of the following conditions could result in white urine?

A. chyluria

B. bacteriuria

C. phosphaturia

D. all of the above

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4

What does apoptosis mean?

A. programmed cell death

B. new vascular formation

C. uninhibited neural stimulation

D. premature muscular contraction

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4

Which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is more likely to form renal stones?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

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4

What is the nerve supply of the adrenal gland?

A. sympathetic to the medulla

B. parasympathetic to the medulla

C. sympathetic to the cortex

D. parasympathetic to the cortex

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4

What causes Cushing`s disease is:

A. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

B. pituitary over secretion of ACTH

C. exogenous administration of glucocorticoids

D. immune-mediated disease

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4

What is the creatinine clearance in ml/min for a 70 kg man aging 50 yrs. with 1.1 mg/dL serum creatinine?

A. 79.54

B. 44.19

C. 84.15

D. 94.25

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4

The manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia include:

A. hypotension and tachycardia

B. hypotension and bradycardia

C. hypertension and tachycardia

D. hypertension and bradycardia

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4

What is the narrowest part of the ureter?

A. uretero-pelvic junction

B. uretero-vesical junction

C. where ureters cross the pelvic brim

D. where ureters cross the common iliac bifurcation

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4

At which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA), typically, potassium levels increase?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

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4

Beside renal excretion of sodium, what does atrial natriuretic hormone cause?

A. constriction of renal afferent arterioles

B. renin inhibition

C. aldosterone stimulation

D. rise in systemic blood pressure

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4

Which antibiotic is the best to treat soft tissue infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in hospitalized patients?

A. vancomycin

B. cefotaxime

C. penicillin G

D. tobramycin

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4

The majority of circulating testosterone is:

A. bound to sex hormone-binding globulin

B. free

C. bound to α1-antichymotrypsin

D. bound to albumin

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4

Which organism is capable of proliferation in the urine and causing urethritis?

A. Ureaplasma urealyticum

B. Chlamydia trachomatis

C. E. coli

D. Neisseria gonorrhea

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4

Which medicine(s) might enhance hypoprothrombinemic effect on oral anticoagulants?

A. allopurinol

B. aminoglycosides

C. cimetidine

D. all of the above

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4

What is false about indinavir sulfate stones?

A. intratubular crystal formation might occur

B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi

C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication

D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion

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4

Which layer lies between the superficial and deep inguinal lymph nodes?

A. Scarpa`s fascia

B. fascia lata

C. Dartos fascia

D. Camper`s fascia

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4

Regarding multicystic kidneys, at what age does the compensatory renal growth end?

A. at birth

B. 2 years

C. at puberty

D. none of the above

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4

What do urine tests examine to detect hematuria?

A. catalase activity of erythrocytes

B. peroxidase activity of erythrocytes

C. lyase activity of erythrocytes

D. none of the above

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4

What is false concerning PSA molecule?

A. the free form of PSA exists in small proportions in the body, and found mainly in BPH and in the ejaculate

B. α1- anti chymotrypsin binds to 3 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA

C. α2- macroglobulin binds to 5 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA

D. the purified PSA molecule has a molecular weight of 90 kDa

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4

Which of the following conditions could happen in chronic pancreatitis and malabsorption syndrome with steatorrhea?

A. hyperoxaluria

B. hypercalciuria

C. hyperuricosuria

D. hyperphosphateuria

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4

Which of the following is NOT a part of the urogenital diaphragm structures?

A. perineal membrane

B. deep transverse perineal muscle

C. urethral sphincter

D. Camper`s fascia

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4

In males, which of the following structure(s) can NOT be palpated during digital rectal examination?

A. pelvic floor muscles

B. seminal vesicles

C. anterior surface of the sacrum

D. median lobe of the prostate

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4

In which body tissue(s) are creatine and phosphocreatine converted to creatinine?

A. bone marrow

B. skeletal muscles

C. brown fat

D. liver

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4

During fluoroscopy, what is the main source of radiation hazards that urologists could be exposed to?

A. scattered radiation from the unleaded wall

B. scattered radiation from the patient

C. scattered radiation from the floor and ceiling

D. radiation from the primary beam