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4

Which lab results indicate poor prognosis of male infertility?

A. azoospermia; normal FSH; increase LH

B. azoospermia; decrease FSH; normal LH

C. oligospermia; increase FSH; normal LH

D. oligospermia; normal FSH; decrease LH

Correct Answer :

C. oligospermia; increase FSH; normal LH


increase FSH indicates that the pituitary gland is stimulating the testis maximally, while no enough feedback from the testes.

Related Questions

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4

Which of the prostate medications could result in retrograde ejaculation?

A. tamsulosin

B. doxazosin

C. dutasteride

D. alfuzosin

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4

What is the prime effect of antidiuretic hormone on kidneys?

A. increase collecting duct permeability

B. increase medullary blood flow

C. decrease cortical blood flow

D. decrease potassium secretion

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4

Which part of the male urethra is the narrowest?

A. the membranous

B. the bladder neck

C. the bulbous

D. the external urethral meatus

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4

Which zone of the prostate originates from the Wolffian duct tissue:

A. central zone

B. peripheral zone

C. transitional zone

D. periurethral glands

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4

What is false concerning fosfomycin antibiotic?

A. has a limited cross-resistance with most common antibacterial agents

B. causes injection site reactions

C. is active against most uropathogens

D. is effective as a single-dose agent

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4

Which of the following does asymptomatic hematuria workup include?

A. cystoscopy

B. CT urography

C. urine cytology

D. all of the above

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4

Which statement is false concerning the gubernaculua?

A. degenerate after birth

B. called the caudal genital ligaments

C. help guide the testes down through the inguinal canals

D. represent undifferentiated mesenchyme

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4

Which innervations mediate detumescence?

A. cavernous nerves

B. dorsal nerves of the penis

C. sympathetic nervous system

D. parasympathetic nervous system

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4

What could render red urine workup, false positive for hematuria?

A. dehydration

B. myoglobinuria

C. high doses of vitamin C

D. all of the above

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4

On tracing the IVU dye down, in a dilated ureter, the dilation stops at a level then continues as a normal calibre ureter. What could the pathology be?

A. lower ureteral stricture

B. ureteral valve

C. modified Lich-Gregoire ureteral reimplantation

D. residual dilation of hydroureter

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4

Which α- adrenergic receptor subtype mediates smooth muscle contraction of the prostate?

A. α1-A

B. α2-A

C. α1-B

D. α2-B

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4

At which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA), typically, potassium levels increase?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

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4

Which of the renal artery occlusive conditions, commonly, do NOT affect renal function?

A. intimal fibroplasia

B. medial fibroplasia

C. medial hyperplasia

D. serosal hyperplasia

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4

Regarding multicystic kidneys, at what age does the compensatory renal growth end?

A. at birth

B. 2 years

C. at puberty

D. none of the above

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4

Which of the following is NOT a part of the urogenital diaphragm structures?

A. perineal membrane

B. deep transverse perineal muscle

C. urethral sphincter

D. Camper`s fascia

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4

Which of the following is NOT a sex accessory tissue?

A. the prostate gland

B. seminal vesicles

C. epididymi

D. bulbourethral glands

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4

What does apoptosis mean?

A. programmed cell death

B. new vascular formation

C. uninhibited neural stimulation

D. premature muscular contraction

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4

Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:

A. sympathetic nervous system

B. parasympathetic nervous system

C. urinary output

D. afferent arteriolar resistance

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4

What helps in treating Candida albicans cystitis is:

A. sodium bicarbonate

B. phyto soya

C. ascorbic acid

D. sol palmetto

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4

How many days does spermatogenesis take in the man?

A. 16

B. 32

C. 64

D. 90

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4

Which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is more likely to form renal stones?

A. type 1

B. type 2

C. type 3

D. type 4

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4

Which of the following is (are) direct branch(es) of the abdominal aorta?

A. median sacral artery

B. inferior phrenic arteries

C. gonadal arteries

D. all of the above

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4

Which agent is most likely to cause hemorrhagic cystitis?

A. cisplatin

B. ifosfamide

C. phosphomycin

D. amphotericin B

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4

How does estrogen prevent lower UTI in postmenopausal women?

A. increasing vaginal secretions

B. decreasing vaginal pH

C. increasing normal vaginal flora

D. decreasing bacterial adherence

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4

What is false about indinavir sulfate stones?

A. intratubular crystal formation might occur

B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi

C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication

D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion

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4

What is false about purple urine bag syndrome?

A. occurs due to the interaction between the chemical components of the urine and polyvinyl chloride material in the urine bag

B. it is commonly symptomless

C. more common in female nursing home residents

D. commonly implicated bacteria are K. pneumoniae, P. mirabilis, E. coli

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4

What is the most significant innervation of the vas deferens?

A. sympathetic nervous system

B. parasympathetic nervous system

C. somatic nervous system

D. none of the above

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4

By which of the following structures, do the fused lower poles of hoarseshoe kidneys get trapped during embryologic ascent?

A. inferior mesenteric artery

B. superior mesenteric artery

C. celiac artery

D. common iliac artery

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4

Which statement is false concerning the epididymis?

A. each epididymis can be palpable at the postero-lateral surface of the testis

B. has 3 parts; head, body, and tail

C. new batches of sperms stay in the epididymis around 2 days for maturation

D. shares the same blood supply of the testis

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4

What could cause autonomic dysreflexia?

A. full bladder or rectum

B. tooth extraction

C. hypertension medications

D. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus